Topic: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS&ANSWERS!!!!!!!

Message

   1)Which one of the following activities is the most efficient and most cost effective at identifying  Defects?

a)Design/code inspection

b)Beta test

c)Unit test

d)Prototyping

e)Risk analysis

2)When does metrics validation occur?

a)After the test

b)Throughout the life cycle

c)After the final software release

d)During the test

e)During requirements definition

3  I.Customer focus 

II.   Radical process improvement

III.   Incremental process improvement

IV.   Quality control specialists are key 

V.   Assumption of unsound processes

VI.   Human side of quality

VII.   Measurement and analysis

In the statements above, what are the key elements in the TQM philosophy?

a)   I, II, IV, and VI

b)   III, IV, V, and VII

c)   I, III, VI, and VII

d)   I, II, VI, and VII

e)   I, III, V, and VI

4)With whom does the responsibility rest for an inspection process performed for a specific software artifact?

a)The recorder

b)The reader

c)The moderator

d)The developer/author

e)The management

5)Identification, control, auditing, and status accounting are functions of which one of the following?

a)Inspection

b)Quality assurance

c)Configuration management

d)Testing

e)Verification and validation

6) I. Closeness of the accuracy between the population defective rate and the  sample defective  Rate

II.   Desired level of confidence 

III.   Skewness of the graph 

IV.   Kurtosis of the graph 

V.   Variability of the dat
 When
designing a plan for estimating the defective rate of a software
population, the  sample size depends on which two of the criteria
listed above?

I and IV

I and II

II and

IV and V

I and III

9) I.   Input domain 

II.  Processing

 III. Output

 IV.  Acceptance criteria 

  V.   Data quality

 Which of the above examples are included in requirements statements?

a)   I, II, and III

b)   II, III, and V

c)   I, II, III, and IV

d)   I, II, III, and V

e)   II, III, and IV

10)  Which one of the following is NOT part of clean room development?

a)   White box testing

b)   Statistics-based testing

c)   Formal specifications

d)   Block-structured development

e)   Specification validation

11)   Which one of the following is used as a tool for tracking an SQA project?

a)   PERT chart

b)   Pareto chart

c)   Cause and effect chart

d)   Run chart

e)   Control chart

12)   Your
audit indicates that the corporate quality management system did NOT
work as it should have. How should this finding be categorized?

a)   Minor nonconformance

b)   Deficiency

c)   Major nonconformance

d)   Catastrophic failure

e)   Observation

13)   Your
audit indicates that the corporate quality management system did NOT
work as it should have. How should this finding be categorized?

a)   Minor nonconformance

b)   Deficiency

c)   Major nonconformance

d)   Catastrophic failure

e)   Observation

14)   What is testing in which the inner structure and control flow are known and used in constructing test cases?

a)   Regression testing

b)   Platform testing

c)   Unit testing

d)   White box testing

e)   Black box testing

15)     I.   Defect removal efficiency 

II.  Function point normalization of quality data

 III. Defect tracking

 IV. Formal inspections

 Which of the above factors are NOT included in the ISO SQA documentation?

a)   II and III

b)   I and IV

c)   I and II

d)   I and III

e)   II and IV

15)   Which one of the following is a method to identify the minority of areas causing the majority of problems?

a)   Predictive analysis

b)   Capability analysis

c)   Reliability modeling

d)   Pareto analysis

e)   Usage analysis

16)   One
annual award for quality is named for a former Secretary of Commerce.
While it is not explicitly for software, organizations that win or
merely compete for this award tend to produce higher-quality
software.In the above statement, what is the name of this award?   

a)   Duran Award

b)   Baldridge Award

c)   Deming Award

d)   Crosby Award

e)   Taylor Award

17)   A
project you are working on will have four incremental builds. To which
build or builds should the requirements be mapped?

a)   All

b)   First and last only

c)   Last only

d)   First only

e)   None

18)   I.   Formality 
       II.  Clarity 
      III. Completeness

In the examples above, what is the primary purpose of taking the minutes at configuration control board meetings?

a)   III

b)   II and III

c)   II

d)   I and II

e)   I and III

19)   What is the dominant standards-making body in the United States?

a)   ISO

b)   ANSI

c)   AFNOR

d)   CCITT

e)   ASQ

20)  I.   Product feasibility 
      II.  Software requirements 
     III. Software Design 
     IV.  Acceptance test

Which of the above reviews are necessary in order to ensure the traceability of requirements in the implemented software?

a)   II, III, and IV

b)   I, II, and IV

c)   II and III

d)   I and II

21)   I.   Checklists have been perfected. 
       II. Checklists continue to evolve. 
      III. Measurements are focused on status of activities. 
      IV.  Measurements are focused on performance. 
      V.   Reliance on qualitative metrics continues. 
     VI. A method to quantify metrics is established.

 As the organization matures from CMM Level 3 to Level 4, which of the above occur with respect to configuration management?

a)   I, III, and VI

b)   II, III, and V

c)   II, IV, and VI

d)   II, III, and VI

e)   I, II, and V

22)  I.   Checklists have been perfected. 
      II. Checklists continue to evolve. 
     III. Measurements are focused on status of activities. 
    IV. Measurements are focused on performance. 
    V.   Reliance on qualitative metrics continues. 
   VI.  A method to quantify metrics is established.

As the organization matures from CMM Level 3 to Level 4, which of the above occur with respect to configuration management?

a)   I, III, and VI

b)   II, III, and V

c)   II, IV, and VI

d)   II, III, and VI

e)   I, II, and V

23)   In the Capability Maturity Model, at which level is effective measurement mastered?

a)   Level 1

b)   Level 2

c)   Level 3

d)   Level 4

e)   Level 5

24)   What
do you call a collection of descriptions of the data items for the
benefit of programmers and others who might need to refer to them?

a)   A specification

b)   A data dictionary

c)   A repository

d)   A data model

e)   A data map

25)   You
are participating in a milestone review for a test. Lower complexity
modules are being tested first. Halfway through the scheduled test
time, 100 major faults have been reported and test coverage is 35
percent. Management asks if you are concerned.

       In the above scenario, what is your best response?

a)   No--you are halfway through the test and you have no catastrophic faults.

b)   Yes--you are only halfway through the test and you have a lot of faults.

c)   No--the lower complexity modules are being tested first.

d)   Yes--the lower complexity modules are being tested first.

e)   Yes--test coverage is only 35 percent though the test is halfway through its schedule.

26)   Which one of the following is the most cost-effective?

a)   Let defects surface during beta testing.

b)   Detect defects during unit testing.

c)   Prevent defects rather than detect them.

d)   Ignore minor defects.

e)   Detect defects during system testing.

      27)   I.   Psychology of inspection 
              II.  Technical knowledge 
             III. Management participation 
             IV.  Inspection process training

            Which of the factors above are important factors in successful inspections?

a)   II, III, and IV

b)   II and IV

c)   I, II, and III

d)   I and II

e)   I, II and IV

 28)
In object-oriented programming, what is the inclusion within a program
object of all the resources needed for the object to function? (For
example, the methods and the data)

a)   Emulation

b)   Encapsulation

c)   Decapsulation

d)   Encryption

e)   Simulation

29)   Which one of the following is true of a cumulative frequency distribution?

a)   It is often a straight line.

b)   It can curve upward or downward.

c)   It always curves upward.

d)   It always curves downward.

e)   It is similar to a scatter plot.

30)   What is the term for migrating an aging legacy application to a new version?

a)   Restructuring

b)   Regression

c)   Reengineering

d)   Reusability

e)   Reverse engineering

31)   I.   Requirements are formally reviewed. 
       II. Requirements are formally approved. 
      III. Requirements are placed under configuration control. 

       IV. Requirements are implemented in code.

Using the above statements, when are requirements considered baselined?

a)   I, II, and III

b)   I and II

c)   I, III, and IV

d)   I only

e)   I, II, III, and IV

32)    I.   Inspection participation 

        II.  Clean-room development 
        III. Configuration control tools 
        IV.  Component reuse

Of the activities listed above, which can be considered defect prevention methods?    

a)   I, II, III, and IV

b)   II, III, and IV

c)   IV

d)   II

e)   II and IV

33)   What test demonstrates to the users and buyers that the system fulfills the contractual requirements?

a)   Acceptance test

b)   System test

c)   Validation test

d)   Regression test

e)   Unit test

 34)   I.   Planning 
         II.  Overview 
        III.  Preparation 
        IV.  Inspection Meeting 
        V.   Rework 
       VI.  Follow-up

    Per the above examples, after which phases are inspections mandatory?      

a)   I, II, III, IV, and V

b)   I, II, IV, V, and VI

c)   I, II, III, IV, and VI

d)   I II, III, IV, and V

e)   I, III, IV, V, and VI

35)  Testing on a number of modules or programs combined into a package is what type of testing?

a)   Unit testing

b)   Regression testing

c)   Acceptance testing

d)   Integration testing

e)   System testing

 36)   What is the single most important component in a software QA program?

a)   Automated data collection

b)   Trained software QA analysts

c)   Comprehensive checklists

d)   Commitment from senior management

e)   Accurate data collection

37)    What is external testing that involves the customers?

a)   Stress testing

b)   System testing

c)   Beta testing

d)   Integration testing

e)   Platform testing

38)  What is a test called that is executed to ensure that NONE of the unchanged code has been corrupted by the changed code?

a)   Acceptance test

b)   Regression test

c)   Unit test

d)   Mutation test

e)   Integration test

39)    What is the dominant SQA certification body in the United States?

a)   IEEE

b)   ACM

c)   NIST

d)   ASQ

e)   ANSI

40)   What is the term for decomposing a software program so that latent design information can be extracted?

a)   Restructuring

b)   Reusability

c)   Reverse engineering

d)   Regression

e)   Reengineering

41)  On which one of the following is statistical quality control based?

a)   Sampling

b)   50% inspection

c)   90% inspection

d)   95% inspection

e)   100% inspection

42)   You
are participating in a program review. A large number of requirements
discrepancies are being discovered, yet the software development
organization has a CMM rating of 3.
 In the scenario above, the project is probably in which one of the following stages of the  
  lifecycle?

a)   Maintenance

b)   Design

c)   Unit testing

d)   Deployment/roll-out

e)   System testing

43) I.   Essential complexity is derived from cyclomatic complexity. 
      II.  Cyclomatic complexity is derived from essential complexity. 
      III.  Cyclomatic complexity is often much larger than essential complexity. 
      IV.  Essential complexity is often much larger than cyclomatic complexity. 
       V.   Essential complexity and cyclomatic complexity are usually within five percent of    
                  each other.
 In the above examples, what is the relationship between essential complexity and  
 cyclomatic  complexity?

a)   I and IV

b)   I and V

c)   II and IV

d)   II and V

e)   I and III

46)   What is the dominant international standard-issuing body?

a)   IEEE

b)   ANSI

c)   ACM

d)   ISO

e)   AQC

47)   On which one of the following does a CMM Level 5 organization focus on?

a)   Product stabilization

b)   Cost improvement

c)   Schedule improvement

d)   Process improvement

e)   Process stabilization

48)   I.   Defect correction 
           II.  Defect prediction 
          III. Personnel appraisal 
          IV.  Resource allocation 
          V.   Cost estimation 
The items listed above are possible uses of data collected during code inspections. 
Which  are the  only acceptable uses of the data? 

a)   I, II, and III

b)   I, II, and V

c)   II, IV, and V

d)   I, II, IV, and V

e)   II, III, IV, and V

48)   What is the primary difference between Verification & Validation (V&V) and Test & 
       Evaluation (T&E)?

a)Testing is only one component of V&V, albeit the most critical.

b)The essence of V&V rests in requirements traceability; the essence of T&E is in the actual exercising of the 
software.
c)V&V is always performed by an outside entity; T&E is always performed internally.

d)The essence of V&V is in the actual exercising of the software; the essence of T&E is in requirements 
traceability.

e)V&V can be accomplished without executing the software, though it usually is not.

50)What happens to the cost of fixing software defects as software development progresses?

a)   It decreases linearly.

b)   It decreases exponentially.

c)   It remains constant.

d)   It increases exponentially.

e)   It increases linearly.

51)   I.   Configuration control 
       II.  Performance 
       III. Reliability 
       IV.  Efficiency 
       V.   Responsiveness 
       VI.  Presentation

The
items listed above represent a partial list of areas of emphasis for
software QA. Which one of these is the most important area of emphasis
for weapon system software?    

a)   I

b)   II

c)   III

d)   IV

e)   VI

52)   The following is a partial list of items required at the final software audits before going into production. 

I.   Requirements specifications 
II.  Final source code 
III. All approved change proposals 
IV.  Operation and support manuals 
V.   Software test plan 
VI.  Coding standards

a)   II and V

b)   I, III, and V

c)   II, III, V and VI

d)   I, IV, and VI

e)   III, V, and VI

53)   What type of testing is the lowest form of testing?

a)   System testing

b)   Integration testing

c)   Performance testing

d)   Regression testing

e)   Unit testing

 54)   I.   Defining SQA milestones 
           II.  Assigning SQA resources 
          III. SQA scheduling 
          IV.  SQA budgeting 
          V.   Selecting software development tools that will interface with the SQA tools 
         VI.  Reviewing any contracts with subcontractors for SQA requirements

      In the above statements, which of the tasks are included in planning the overall SQA effort?

a)   I, II, III, and V

b)   I, II, III, and IV

c)   III, IV, V, and VI

d)   II, III, V, and VI

e)   I, III, V, and VI

55)    ABC Corp. is developing an online transaction system. It will be
used by a maximum of 350 data entry clerks. The requirements are not
well defined, and the customer wants frequent, extensive reviews of the
product under development.
 In the scenario above, which is the best development model to use?

a)   Canonical

b)   Bottoms-up

c)   Rapid prototyping

d)   Spiral

e)   Waterfall

56)   I.   Requirements 
       II.  Design 
      III. Coding 
      IV.  Document 
      V.   Bad fixes
Of the software defect types are listed above, which three are the most difficult to identify?

a)   II, III, and IV

b)   I, IV, and V

c)   I, II, and V

d)   III, IV, and V

e)   I, III, and V

57)   Which one of the following is a method to identify the minority of areas causing the majority of problems?

a)   Capability analysis

b)   Pareto analysis

c)   Predictive analysis

d)   Reliability modeling

e)   Usage analysis

58)   For which one of the following is the Capability Maturity Model a framework?

a)   Environment improvement

b)   Requirements improvement

c)   Organizational improvement

d)   Process improvement

e)   Product improvement

59)  I.   Policymaker 
          II.  Technical specialist 
         III. Project manager 
         IV.  Software development manager

The
personnel listed above represent a partial list of candidates for the
configuration control board (CCB). In addition to software QA and
software CM, which of these personnel should be included on the CCB?

a)   II and III

b)   I, II, III, and IV

c)   II

d)   II and IV

e)   I and II

60)  After which phase is the inspection process optional?

a)   Rework

b)   Planning

c)   Preparation

d)   Inspection meeting

e)   Overview

61) I .   Entities 
     II.  Relationships 
    III. Algorithms 
    IV.  Inputs 
    V.   Outputs
Unlike
the standard IFPUG function point metric, the British Mark II function
point metric includes counts of which two objects in the above examples?

a)  III and V

b)   II and III

c)   I and III

d)   I and II

e)   III and IV

Author	Message
tanushree Senior Member Joined: 04Apr2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 2160	Topic: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS&ANSWERS!!!!!!! Posted: 16Oct2007 at 1:26am
	1)Which one of the following activities is the most efficient and most cost effective at identifying Defects? a)Design/code inspection b)Beta test c)Unit test d)Prototyping e)Risk analysis 2)When does metrics validation occur? a)After the test b)Throughout the life cycle c)After the final software release d)During the test e)During requirements definition 3 I.Customer focus II. Radical process improvement III. Incremental process improvement IV. Quality control specialists are key V. Assumption of unsound processes VI. Human side of quality VII. Measurement and analysis In the statements above, what are the key elements in the TQM philosophy? a) I, II, IV, and VI b) III, IV, V, and VII c) I, III, VI, and VII d) I, II, VI, and VII e) I, III, V, and VI 4)With whom does the responsibility rest for an inspection process performed for a specific software artifact? a)The recorder b)The reader c)The moderator d)The developer/author e)The management 5)Identification, control, auditing, and status accounting are functions of which one of the following? a)Inspection b)Quality assurance c)Configuration management d)Testing e)Verification and validation 6) I. Closeness of the accuracy between the population defective rate and the sample defective Rate II. Desired level of confidence III. Skewness of the graph IV. Kurtosis of the graph V. Variability of the dat When designing a plan for estimating the defective rate of a software population, the sample size depends on which two of the criteria listed above? I and IV I and II II and IV and V I and III 9) I. Input domain II. Processing III. Output IV. Acceptance criteria V. Data quality Which of the above examples are included in requirements statements? a) I, II, and III b) II, III, and V c) I, II, III, and IV d) I, II, III, and V e) II, III, and IV 10) Which one of the following is NOT part of clean room development? a) White box testing b) Statistics-based testing c) Formal specifications d) Block-structured development e) Specification validation 11) Which one of the following is used as a tool for tracking an SQA project? a) PERT chart b) Pareto chart c) Cause and effect chart d) Run chart e) Control chart 12) Your audit indicates that the corporate quality management system did NOT work as it should have. How should this finding be categorized? a) Minor nonconformance b) Deficiency c) Major nonconformance d) Catastrophic failure e) Observation 13) Your audit indicates that the corporate quality management system did NOT work as it should have. How should this finding be categorized? a) Minor nonconformance b) Deficiency c) Major nonconformance d) Catastrophic failure e) Observation 14) What is testing in which the inner structure and control flow are known and used in constructing test cases? a) Regression testing b) Platform testing c) Unit testing d) White box testing e) Black box testing 15) I. Defect removal efficiency II. Function point normalization of quality data III. Defect tracking IV. Formal inspections Which of the above factors are NOT included in the ISO SQA documentation? a) II and III b) I and IV c) I and II d) I and III e) II and IV 15) Which one of the following is a method to identify the minority of areas causing the majority of problems? a) Predictive analysis b) Capability analysis c) Reliability modeling d) Pareto analysis e) Usage analysis 16) One annual award for quality is named for a former Secretary of Commerce. While it is not explicitly for software, organizations that win or merely compete for this award tend to produce higher-quality software.In the above statement, what is the name of this award? a) Duran Award b) Baldridge Award c) Deming Award d) Crosby Award e) Taylor Award 17) A project you are working on will have four incremental builds. To which build or builds should the requirements be mapped? a) All b) First and last only c) Last only d) First only e) None 18) I. Formality II. Clarity III. Completeness In the examples above, what is the primary purpose of taking the minutes at configuration control board meetings? a) III b) II and III c) II d) I and II e) I and III 19) What is the dominant standards-making body in the United States? a) ISO b) ANSI c) AFNOR d) CCITT e) ASQ 20) I. Product feasibility II. Software requirements III. Software Design IV. Acceptance test Which of the above reviews are necessary in order to ensure the traceability of requirements in the implemented software? a) II, III, and IV b) I, II, and IV c) II and III d) I and II 21) I. Checklists have been perfected. II. Checklists continue to evolve. III. Measurements are focused on status of activities. IV. Measurements are focused on performance. V. Reliance on qualitative metrics continues. VI. A method to quantify metrics is established. As the organization matures from CMM Level 3 to Level 4, which of the above occur with respect to configuration management? a) I, III, and VI b) II, III, and V c) II, IV, and VI d) II, III, and VI e) I, II, and V 22) I. Checklists have been perfected. II. Checklists continue to evolve. III. Measurements are focused on status of activities. IV. Measurements are focused on performance. V. Reliance on qualitative metrics continues. VI. A method to quantify metrics is established. As the organization matures from CMM Level 3 to Level 4, which of the above occur with respect to configuration management? a) I, III, and VI b) II, III, and V c) II, IV, and VI d) II, III, and VI e) I, II, and V 23) In the Capability Maturity Model, at which level is effective measurement mastered? a) Level 1 b) Level 2 c) Level 3 d) Level 4 e) Level 5 24) What do you call a collection of descriptions of the data items for the benefit of programmers and others who might need to refer to them? a) A specification b) A data dictionary c) A repository d) A data model e) A data map 25) You are participating in a milestone review for a test. Lower complexity modules are being tested first. Halfway through the scheduled test time, 100 major faults have been reported and test coverage is 35 percent. Management asks if you are concerned. In the above scenario, what is your best response? a) No--you are halfway through the test and you have no catastrophic faults. b) Yes--you are only halfway through the test and you have a lot of faults. c) No--the lower complexity modules are being tested first. d) Yes--the lower complexity modules are being tested first. e) Yes--test coverage is only 35 percent though the test is halfway through its schedule. 26) Which one of the following is the most cost-effective? a) Let defects surface during beta testing. b) Detect defects during unit testing. c) Prevent defects rather than detect them. d) Ignore minor defects. e) Detect defects during system testing. 27) I. Psychology of inspection II. Technical knowledge III. Management participation IV. Inspection process training Which of the factors above are important factors in successful inspections? a) II, III, and IV b) II and IV c) I, II, and III d) I and II e) I, II and IV 28) In object-oriented programming, what is the inclusion within a program object of all the resources needed for the object to function? (For example, the methods and the data) a) Emulation b) Encapsulation c) Decapsulation d) Encryption e) Simulation 29) Which one of the following is true of a cumulative frequency distribution? a) It is often a straight line. b) It can curve upward or downward. c) It always curves upward. d) It always curves downward. e) It is similar to a scatter plot. 30) What is the term for migrating an aging legacy application to a new version? a) Restructuring b) Regression c) Reengineering d) Reusability e) Reverse engineering 31) I. Requirements are formally reviewed. II. Requirements are formally approved. III. Requirements are placed under configuration control. IV. Requirements are implemented in code. Using the above statements, when are requirements considered baselined? a) I, II, and III b) I and II c) I, III, and IV d) I only e) I, II, III, and IV 32) I. Inspection participation II. Clean-room development III. Configuration control tools IV. Component reuse Of the activities listed above, which can be considered defect prevention methods? a) I, II, III, and IV b) II, III, and IV c) IV d) II e) II and IV 33) What test demonstrates to the users and buyers that the system fulfills the contractual requirements? a) Acceptance test b) System test c) Validation test d) Regression test e) Unit test 34) I. Planning II. Overview III. Preparation IV. Inspection Meeting V. Rework VI. Follow-up Per the above examples, after which phases are inspections mandatory? a) I, II, III, IV, and V b) I, II, IV, V, and VI c) I, II, III, IV, and VI d) I II, III, IV, and V e) I, III, IV, V, and VI 35) Testing on a number of modules or programs combined into a package is what type of testing? a) Unit testing b) Regression testing c) Acceptance testing d) Integration testing e) System testing 36) What is the single most important component in a software QA program? a) Automated data collection b) Trained software QA analysts c) Comprehensive checklists d) Commitment from senior management e) Accurate data collection 37) What is external testing that involves the customers? a) Stress testing b) System testing c) Beta testing d) Integration testing e) Platform testing 38) What is a test called that is executed to ensure that NONE of the unchanged code has been corrupted by the changed code? a) Acceptance test b) Regression test c) Unit test d) Mutation test e) Integration test 39) What is the dominant SQA certification body in the United States? a) IEEE b) ACM c) NIST d) ASQ e) ANSI 40) What is the term for decomposing a software program so that latent design information can be extracted? a) Restructuring b) Reusability c) Reverse engineering d) Regression e) Reengineering 41) On which one of the following is statistical quality control based? a) Sampling b) 50% inspection c) 90% inspection d) 95% inspection e) 100% inspection 42) You are participating in a program review. A large number of requirements discrepancies are being discovered, yet the software development organization has a CMM rating of 3. In the scenario above, the project is probably in which one of the following stages of the lifecycle? a) Maintenance b) Design c) Unit testing d) Deployment/roll-out e) System testing 43) I. Essential complexity is derived from cyclomatic complexity. II. Cyclomatic complexity is derived from essential complexity. III. Cyclomatic complexity is often much larger than essential complexity. IV. Essential complexity is often much larger than cyclomatic complexity. V. Essential complexity and cyclomatic complexity are usually within five percent of each other. In the above examples, what is the relationship between essential complexity and cyclomatic complexity? a) I and IV b) I and V c) II and IV d) II and V e) I and III 46) What is the dominant international standard-issuing body? a) IEEE b) ANSI c) ACM d) ISO e) AQC 47) On which one of the following does a CMM Level 5 organization focus on? a) Product stabilization b) Cost improvement c) Schedule improvement d) Process improvement e) Process stabilization 48) I. Defect correction II. Defect prediction III. Personnel appraisal IV. Resource allocation V. Cost estimation The items listed above are possible uses of data collected during code inspections. Which are the only acceptable uses of the data? a) I, II, and III b) I, II, and V c) II, IV, and V d) I, II, IV, and V e) II, III, IV, and V 48) What is the primary difference between Verification & Validation (V&V) and Test & Evaluation (T&E)? a)Testing is only one component of V&V, albeit the most critical. b)The essence of V&V rests in requirements traceability; the essence of T&E is in the actual exercising of the software. c)V&V is always performed by an outside entity; T&E is always performed internally. d)The essence of V&V is in the actual exercising of the software; the essence of T&E is in requirements traceability. e)V&V can be accomplished without executing the software, though it usually is not. 50)What happens to the cost of fixing software defects as software development progresses? a) It decreases linearly. b) It decreases exponentially. c) It remains constant. d) It increases exponentially. e) It increases linearly. 51) I. Configuration control II. Performance III. Reliability IV. Efficiency V. Responsiveness VI. Presentation The items listed above represent a partial list of areas of emphasis for software QA. Which one of these is the most important area of emphasis for weapon system software? a) I b) II c) III d) IV e) VI 52) The following is a partial list of items required at the final software audits before going into production. I. Requirements specifications II. Final source code III. All approved change proposals IV. Operation and support manuals V. Software test plan VI. Coding standards a) II and V b) I, III, and V c) II, III, V and VI d) I, IV, and VI e) III, V, and VI 53) What type of testing is the lowest form of testing? a) System testing b) Integration testing c) Performance testing d) Regression testing e) Unit testing 54) I. Defining SQA milestones II. Assigning SQA resources III. SQA scheduling IV. SQA budgeting V. Selecting software development tools that will interface with the SQA tools VI. Reviewing any contracts with subcontractors for SQA requirements In the above statements, which of the tasks are included in planning the overall SQA effort? a) I, II, III, and V b) I, II, III, and IV c) III, IV, V, and VI d) II, III, V, and VI e) I, III, V, and VI 55) ABC Corp. is developing an online transaction system. It will be used by a maximum of 350 data entry clerks. The requirements are not well defined, and the customer wants frequent, extensive reviews of the product under development. In the scenario above, which is the best development model to use? a) Canonical b) Bottoms-up c) Rapid prototyping d) Spiral e) Waterfall 56) I. Requirements II. Design III. Coding IV. Document V. Bad fixes Of the software defect types are listed above, which three are the most difficult to identify? a) II, III, and IV b) I, IV, and V c) I, II, and V d) III, IV, and V e) I, III, and V 57) Which one of the following is a method to identify the minority of areas causing the majority of problems? a) Capability analysis b) Pareto analysis c) Predictive analysis d) Reliability modeling e) Usage analysis 58) For which one of the following is the Capability Maturity Model a framework? a) Environment improvement b) Requirements improvement c) Organizational improvement d) Process improvement e) Product improvement 59) I. Policymaker II. Technical specialist III. Project manager IV. Software development manager The personnel listed above represent a partial list of candidates for the configuration control board (CCB). In addition to software QA and software CM, which of these personnel should be included on the CCB? a) II and III b) I, II, III, and IV c) II d) II and IV e) I and II 60) After which phase is the inspection process optional? a) Rework b) Planning c) Preparation d) Inspection meeting e) Overview 61) I . Entities II. Relationships III. Algorithms IV. Inputs V. Outputs Unlike the standard IFPUG function point metric, the British Mark II function point metric includes counts of which two objects in the above examples? a) III and V b) II and III c) I and III d) I and II e) III and IV Post Resume: Click here to Upload your Resume & Apply for Jobs

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coolstar Newbie Joined: 01Nov2007 Location: India Online Status: Offline Posts: 1	Posted: 21Nov2007 at 8:52pm
	Hi Tanushree, I am unable to find the answers pls.
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renud Newbie Joined: 26Dec2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 1	Posted: 02Jan2008 at 1:51am
	nice collection ,really useful as few of these appeared in a test i recently gave
	RSD
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renud Newbie Joined: 26Dec2007 Online Status: Offline Posts: 1	Posted: 02Jan2008 at 1:52am
	hi tanushree could u help me to get answers to these questions
	RSD
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jitingarg Newbie Joined: 06Jan2008 Location: India Online Status: Offline Posts: 1	Posted: 06Jan2008 at 3:36am
	Hi Tanushree, I am also interested in getting answers of the above given questions. Could u please help us to get answers? Thanks.
	Tester
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bhasskargopal Newbie Joined: 09Jan2008 Location: India Online Status: Offline Posts: 1	Posted: 11Jan2008 at 10:02pm
	Hi Tanushree, Very good Idea by posting the questions. It was very useful. It would be appreciable if you kindly update the answers also so that we can verify simultaneously. Thank you very much.
	With Luv BhasskarGopal
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